What do they mean by after the day the cause of action accru

Submitted by Anonymous (not verified) on Thu, 09/13/2007 - 04:31
Forums

Texas
Sol reads like this:
The Texas Civil Practice & Remedies Code provides a 4-year limitations period for types of debt
The SoL begins after the day the cause of action accrues. What do they mean by after the day the cause of action accrues?
i plan on paying my debt but not if it was bought unfairly.

You said its 7 years now. In that case your debt is out of SOL and a payment would restart the SOL.

I think on the date of first default begins the SOL

Thu, 09/13/2007 - 05:07 Permalink

"the day the cause of action accrues" is another way of saying "the day they have a reason to sue you" -- or the day that you renegged on your promise. If you promised to pay them monthly by the 25th, on the 26th if they don't have a payment, then there is a cause of action because your broke your end of the agreement.

Thu, 09/13/2007 - 12:31 Permalink

CreditGrantor..can you tell me what you do, for a living? I've read a few posts, from you, and I'm just a bit confused. Do you know laws in ALL states, or do you just deal with the laws, in the state you live in??

Thu, 09/13/2007 - 17:24 Permalink

Basic contract law usually transfers from state to state. Creditgrantor is simply describing a breach of contract.

Fri, 09/14/2007 - 00:13 Permalink

Sorry if I was confusing, just trying to give some examples. Cajun said what I didn't -- breach of contract is a better term.

To answer your other question, I run an auto-finance company. I receive credit apps from car dealers, I evaluate the apps and underwrite the loan approvals, and if approved we fund the car purchase. I also have to service our accounts and I manage our collections as well.

To the extent that Federal laws govern all loan transactions (ie reg B, reg Z), I am familiar with those as they apply to every state. But lending/contract laws and collection laws vary from state to state, so as far as those are concerned I am only familiar with IL and WI.

Fri, 09/14/2007 - 03:53 Permalink

Oh..ok!! Thanks for the reply. You " finance autos"..cool?? What about people who have bad credit.....is it a higher % rate? Or..DO you finance those with bad credit? Sounds like your job keeps you busy. Thanks for the info back.

Fri, 09/14/2007 - 19:40 Permalink

My company tends to deal in the "secondary market" -- meaning my customers have blemishes on their credit report that would otherwise prevent them from obtaining traditional financing through a bank.

It is true that "the higher the risk, the higher the rate" -- our rates would be anywhere between 12% upwards of 29%. The reason for this is simply because customers in this category do not perform as well, and there is a higher rate of default among the class as a whole. Increased losses and collection expenses create a large overhead, and so we must charge more interest in order to realize a profit on our returns.

BUT the rate is also in comparison to the amount being financed. We are mostly doing used autos in the $5-10K range. Take 18% on a $8K balance over 36 mos = avg $67/mo interest. Or look at 29% on a $5000 car over 24 mos = avg $68/mo interest. ... Where even 5% (bank rate) on a new car purchase $25K X 60 mos = avg $55/mo interest. So you see, the difference is not all that big.

Sat, 09/15/2007 - 06:47 Permalink
Stan (not verified)

In May 1997, I had an issue of overbilling with the telephone company in TEXAS, of about $400. It was a case where they had charged the wrong rate for overseas calls. Over a period of 3-4 months, they finally agreed over the phone that the charge was incorrect and the matter was dropped. No collection agencies, no nasty letters. no credit reporting...my credit score is 795.

last week, I received a letter from a collection agency stating that I owe over $4000 towards the phone company.

I think this is a bogus charge, I dont owe any money in the first place. Furthermore, wouldn't the SOL have expired as well (4 yrs in texas)??? Does this agency have any legal right in trying to harass me? Do I have to send them a letter quoting the law??
Any advice is appreciated.
Thanks

Sat, 10/13/2007 - 17:04 Permalink

A cease and desist letter should suffice; dispute the debt, tell them SOL has ran, and demand that they discontinue any efforts to contact you.

It is perfectly legal for them to try to collect on a debt they believe to be legitimate (you cannot blame the CA for purchasing a debt that the phone company should have deleted). However, they must be in compliance with FDCPA, as well as any state laws regarding debt collection (such as licensing requirements).

Mon, 10/15/2007 - 13:33 Permalink
Melanie (not verified)

I have a bunch of old debt from 2000, the credit cards have been turned over to collections (this is about the 3rd time being purchased to other credit card companies), I have started paying on a couple of them about a year ago, the bills are getting out of hand, was thinking about filing bankrupty, husband doesn't want me to, he found info about the SOL, I'm wondering when did the 4 years start?, did I mess up by paying on a couple of them. Please help. I'd love to get my credit score back up to where it was (gold).

Wed, 07/09/2008 - 13:22 Permalink

SOL begins after the last payment made, no matter how much the payment, even if it is a dime, it starts the SOL all over again.

Thu, 07/10/2008 - 03:06 Permalink

Statute of limitations are different from each state, you will need to see what your state law is.

Sat, 07/12/2008 - 03:01 Permalink

thats correct Goodnatured. That is why many CA will ask ppl to give them a 5 dollar goodwill payment. They do this to reset the clock on the SOL so they may file suit.

Sun, 07/13/2008 - 01:45 Permalink

Dirty little trick, that works, people do not realize that what the actual affect is by paying this little bit of money.

Sun, 07/13/2008 - 02:26 Permalink

Yes, CMBV is correct. Even if you make a partial payment after the date your SOL has expired, your SOL expiry date postpones. Although SOL expiry does not necessary mean that you are no longer liable for the debt, yet it provides defense to the customer against the suit filed by the creditors.

Mon, 07/14/2008 - 09:45 Permalink

You are still liable for the debt, however you can not be sued, they can still continue to still collect on the debt.

Tue, 07/15/2008 - 03:04 Permalink

You mean continue to harass you on the debt right good natured? What amazes me is when a debt is past SOL and they still don't want to make a decent deal to settle it out.

Fri, 07/18/2008 - 13:15 Permalink
slsmjr (not verified)

If there are no collection calls being made by a company listed on my credit report, but it's still listed as an outstanding debt....does the SOL apply to this? can i feasibly write the credit bureau and have it removed. I have tried to dispute items directly to the credit bureau and have received no response, however the items have not been removed? Please help.

Wed, 03/11/2009 - 20:49 Permalink

The collection agency may or may not call you to recover the debt. If it has listed its name against the debt in your credit report, it means that they demand the money back from you. To check whether you actually owe them the money or not, first get the debt validated by sending them a debt validation letter by certified mail. If they can properly validate the debt, you cannot get it removed from the credit report, else you may send a dispute letter to the bureaus and get the listing removed from your report.

Mon, 03/23/2009 - 09:49 Permalink

No, you cannot get it removed from your credit report if it is correct. Correct listings can never be removed from the report, unless the creditor agrees to pay for deletion agreement in writing. When you dispute an item with the credit bureaus, the bureaus verify the listing with the creditors. Only if the creditors or the CA cannot prove that they own the debt, the bureaus remove it from your report, else not.

Mon, 03/23/2009 - 10:36 Permalink
Ravi (not verified)

Where can I find written authorities for restart of Statute Of Limitation for Indiana?

Wed, 08/12/2009 - 18:49 Permalink
dsmith (not verified)

My husband just received a collection call from a company looking for back rent on an apartment he rented in Texas in 2006! He was military and had orders to return to Colorado in mid-September 2006 but there is a strange clause in Texas apartment leases that allows them to collect one additional month of rent if 30 days written notice is unable to be provided.

Essentially, they are looking for October 2006 rent. My husband asked for proof of the debt from the CA since this is the first we have had anyone look for this money. They sent a copy od the signed lease and the copy of the signed Notice to Vacate letter which both bear my husband's signature.

If I understand the SoL for Texas, then as of Oct 2009 wouldn't this be uncollectable? Or does the clock begin again because we asked for proof and we received a letter?

Wed, 01/20/2010 - 19:35 Permalink
DAV (not verified)

If i miss payments on credit cards. then make an arrangement, pay that for a couple months then stop what is the cause of action date?

Mon, 03/07/2011 - 21:36 Permalink
vet1 (not verified)

I see this is an older forum but thought I would ask anyway
I have read that the SOL really does not start until 180 days after the last attempt to collect is or the debt was charged off
I thought it started the day after you failed to pay
Is the 180 day something that is each state or is it all states
I am in texas
I received a letter from a debt collector stating that the debt was beyond being sued and showed as last payment jul 2010.
I have never card that is last paid aug 2010 yet they do not say it is past the sol
Any actual input as to when the sol starts and does the 180 day mean anything would help

Fri, 08/29/2014 - 17:30 Permalink