A couple of questions

Submitted by Anonymous (not verified) on Thu, 09/23/2010 - 04:36
Forums

Hi,

I have a couple of questions. When demanding debt validation on an old debt, I have 30 days from initial contact (which has expired) to demand validation. I’m thinking of countering with 15 USC 1692g(a)(3) where the 30 days starts with the receipt of the notice and demanding they prove I received the notice. Is this at all a good tactic? Would it hold up in court if it ever gets there?

I had always heard that when I paid off my car, my FICO would go up. Well, I did and it didn’t. I think part of the problem is that the car finance company transferred the debt just as I was going to pay it off. So the line item shows a transfer and not a payoff and the second finance company never sent in anything to the CRA so in effect, my CR never shows me actually paying off the car. I would love to take advantage of this situation to get the whole line item wiped. Any ideas on how to do this?

I think that’s it for now.

Hi Roch,

Is this at all a good tactic? Would it hold up in court if it ever gets there?

I don't think this is much of a good tactic. If you can prove in any way that you have some problem with the mail at your home, maybe you can get the upper hand. But I don't know if that's possible.

As for the car and the payments I think you need to talk to your finance holder (the second one) and request them to update the account details on your credit report.

Thanks,

Aaron

Thu, 09/23/2010 - 09:14 Permalink
Anonymous (not verified)

But cinnamngrl, not all lenders report to the credit agencies. If this finance company does not report to any of the three credit bureaus, I don't think the OP can do anything about it.

Aaron

Fri, 09/24/2010 - 10:42 Permalink

I am saying that despite the fact that new loan holder did not report the payoff and the prior loan holder shows a remaining balance, it is still a positive tradeline. The OP will hurt their score by deleting it

Fri, 09/24/2010 - 13:02 Permalink